"Lorca es andaluz. ¿ Por qué no tengo el derecho de ser peruano?" (César Vallejo). Lorca is Andalusian. Why don't I have the right to be Peruvian? In other words, why accept the regional difference in Spanish within Spain, and not the difference between Spain and Latin American? Why is Lorca's Spanish seen as comprehensible, and Vallejo's not?

This edition of Aphorisms, translated by Kessler and published by Green Integer, seems based on a corrupt or unreliable text. For example, the sentence above reads "Lorca en andaluz." (Lorca in Andalusian). I've corrected it--although I could be wrong.